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November 11

If Venezuela means 'little venice' ...

What would a 'big venice' be called, if there were such a thing?

Adambrowne666 (talk) 11:34, 11 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

-uela is indeed a Spanish diminutive, Adambrowne666, feminine of wikt:-uelo. One augmentative form in Spanish would be Venezón (see wikt:ón#Spanish) but I haven't found any examples of that use (there's a handful of ghits, but they seem to be other things). --ColinFine (talk) 12:40, 11 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

That link should be wikt:-ón#Spanish. —Stephen (talk) 04:43, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

See also Little Venice, London, Little Venice, Michigan and Venice of the North (there are more than thirty) and List of places called Venice of the East (about forty). Alansplodge (talk) 15:16, 11 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Thank you for your responses. I'm asking the question for a novel I'm writing: there's an otherworldly city that bases itself on Venice, but flatters itself that it is superior to the original: bigger and better, stranger, richer in stink. Does this inspire anyone to more names you'd like to suggest? Adambrowne666 (talk) 06:15, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The opposite of a diminutive is an augmentative. If Venezuela somehow derives from an Italian diminutive (looks more like a Spanish one to me, but it doesn't make that much difference, as they are fairly parallel), then I suppose maybe Venezione?

The problem is that Italian (and I think also Spanish) augmentatives carry connotations other than just size and importance, and these tend to be unflattering. The small is beautiful notion seems to be built into the Romance languages in this way. Diminutives are affectionate, whereas augmentatives carry a sense of something big and ugly or dangerous or stupid.

Depending on what you're going for in your novel, I suppose that might actually work. Only you can decide that. --Trovatore (talk) 06:23, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Oh, another thought: How about Veneziotto? English Wiktionary claims that Italian -otto is a diminutive, but the example is not very convincing — a giovanotto is usually someone who is not anymore that young, possibly late twenties or early thirties. And risotto supposedly derives from risum optimum, "excellent rice", though I don't have a cite for that. --Trovatore (talk) 06:34, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

That's a great answer, thank you, Trovatore. Today I learned that the opposite of diminutive is augmentive. Can I press you further? - can you, or others, come up with a name for a superior Venice? Adambrowne666 (talk) 07:43, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Something like "Venicissima", perhaps. Xuxl (talk) 18:52, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

La Serenissima ma anche di piu`. Or maybe La Serenissimissima. :-) --Trovatore (talk) 18:56, 12 November 2018 (UTC) [reply]

Thanks, Trovatore and Xuxl - i had to look up La Serenissima ma anche di piu - 'Venice but even more' - I reckon I will actually use it somewhere, but as a sort of nickname for the city; and it is the sort of novel where I'd get away with a gag name like La Serenissimissma, but it would work only in passing, referring to some weird city on another world that's mentioned once and not again - hapax legomena - still looking for a convincing, cool name. Only if people are interested, of course. Thanks again. Adambrowne666 (talk) 03:13, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

On shortened or full personal names

Sometimes people call each other by a name other than what they were introduced with. I've noticed a gender difference. It seems like men call other men a shortened version of their names to show familiarity, which is obvious and expected. But women call men, more than sometimes, the longer version of their given name to show familiarity or affection. What's this about? Temerarius (talk) 17:51, 11 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

I don't know the answer, but will point out that it's an awfully muddy area. My full first name is "Mathew", but I've always hated it and always go by "Matt". When the guys at work want to use a nickname, they go with "Matty". But is "Matty" an augmentative version of "Matt" or a diminutive of "Mathew"? Neither? Both? While you're researching, the word Hypocorism may come in handy. Just out of curiosity, was your question triggered by the final season of House of Cards? It was a point of conversation in a couple of episodes. Matt Deres (talk) 18:40, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Matt is a diminutive or nickname of Mathew or Matthew, and Matty can be a diminutive for both. The Hall of Fame pitcher Christy Mathewson, who was born Christopher Mathewson, was called by two diminutives: "Christy" and "Matty". ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 00:42, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Matty can be the pet name of Matthew or of Madison (Madison means son of Matthew). There is also Mattie, which is the pet name for Martha, Madeline, or Matilda. A lot of my male ancestors were named Madison and went by Matty. My grandmother was Matilda, or Mattie. Then there is Maddy and Maddie, pronounced like Matty and Mattie, and which are short for Madison or Madeleine. —Stephen (talk) 05:09, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

"Maddie" also. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 06:22, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Interesting that a major character in the original UK series of House of Cards was a woman named Mattie Storin. It was never explained what the origin of her name was. -- Jack of Oz ^{[pleasantries]} 05:16, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

November 12

Ergative-Absolutive Language

Ergative language
Sentence:	Martin etorri da.		Martinek Diego ikusi du.
Word:	Martin-Ø	etorri da	Martin-ek	Diego-Ø	ikusi du
Gloss:	Martin-ABS	has arrived	Martin-ERG	Diego-ABS	saw
Function:	S	VERB_intrans	A	O	VERB_trans
Translation:	"Martin has arrived."		"Martin saw Diego."

Ay theories or research on how and why such a system would develop? "Martin has arrived" is clearly a sentence without an object, without a patient. Martin isn't being arrived, nor is he being made to arrive, yet EA languages mark him as if he were being acted upon, aka as if he were the object. Then again, in this case Martin isn't marked at all... déhanchements (talk) 04:02, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Makuta_Makaveli -- The subject of a stative verb (such as "John is sleeping") really has very little in common semantically with the subject of a non-stative or "dynamic" verb (such as "John kicked Bill"). In some languages, stative verbs sort of merge with adjectives -- while in other languages, the subject of a stative verb grammatically groups together with the object of a transitive verb, which is quite natural, since both the stative subject and the transitive object are affected by the action of the verb (i.e. are semantically undergoers or "patients"), while the transitive subject has a different semantic role as an "agent" (i.e. the kicker, rather than the kickee).

Grouping together together the subject of a stative verb with the object of a transitive verb is already the nucleus of ergativity. However, this leaves it undetermined how the subject of a non-stative and intransitive verb ("John arrived") is to be classified. If the subjects of non-stative intranstive verbs are grammatically grouped together with subjects of stative verbs then you have full ergativity.

Note that there are various partial way-stations on the path to or from full ergativity (which linguists call by such names as "semi-ergativity", "split egativity" etc.) AnonMoos (talk) 13:12, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

That's cool, didn't think of that. It's just speculation on my part, but I think that many Nominative-Accusative and Ergative-Absolutive languages were once split ergative/Active-Stative, or developed from one that was. PIE seems to have been one of these. déhanchements (talk) 00:46, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

EA languages mark him as if he were being acted upon, aka as if he were the object. They mark him so if we forget that they are EA languages and analyse this from the viewpoint of NA languages. ¶ I think AnonMoos simplifies slightly. While I know no Basque and don't know how to say "She's running" in Basque; in English run is intransitive but certainly not stative. And it's a freakish verb, I know, but undergo is transitive yet its subject is, well, pretty much the reverse of an agent. ¶ I believe that full, unambiguous ergativity is very rare and that split ergativity is a lot commoner. (Though I don't know what this implies.) ¶ A good book to consult is Miriam Butt, Theories of Case, ISBN 9780521797313. -- Hoary (talk) 23:46, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Why is "run" different than "arrive" in the classification of verbs as stative vs. non-stative and intransitive vs. transitive? Under some theories, the subject of "to undergo" would be an experiencer (not necessarily exactly the same thing as a patient)... AnonMoos (talk) 07:57, 14 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Good question. Both run and arrive are non-stative and intransitive. I think I read your comment too sleepily. Sorry about that. I find the business of theta-roles rather frustrating. A typical syntax textbook introduces them in a breezy way, uses them to demonstrate a couple of things and then drops them -- not before introducing "UTAH" or whatever's the notion du jour, but before the reader asks too many questions. Anyway, am I changed by having undergone this or that? I think I am; and if I am, then I think I'm a patient rather than an experiencer. -- Hoary (talk) 13:37, 14 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Nigerian languages

Is English used by a majority or a minority of the population of Nigeria? I don't know much about Nigerian linguistic culture; most publications I've seen from there are in English, but obviously the literate portion of the country's population is more likely to be familiar with English than the illiterate. These two maps appear to me to contradict each other: the first one seems to depict it as "Official with majority", while the second definitely portrays it as "States where English is an official language, but not the majority language". Languages of Nigeria says "As reported in 2003, Nigerian English and Nigerian Pidgin were spoken as a second language by 60 million people in Nigeria" but doesn't have statistics on first-language usage, while Nigerian English and Demographics of Nigeria don't have many usable statistics beyond the fact that there are 196 million Nigerians (so the maximum possible number of native anglophones is 136 million). Presumably there would have to be 38 million native anglophones for it to be a majority language, which would fit with the numbers, but I don't know how realistic that is. Nyttend (talk) 15:47, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Not many Nigerians use English as a first language, although quite a few learn it from a very young age. It's a lingua franca that is commonly used to allow Nigerians to understand one another and is the language used by the government, but its usage is largely confined to educated urban populations. There are huge swaths of the country where hardly anyone speaks English. --Xuxl (talk) 18:56, 12 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

So Xuxl, you'd conclude that Nigeria should be "official and used by a minority"? Nyttend (talk) 01:55, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Looking at the article English-speaking world, where the first map is used, it seems to include "native speakers of dialect continua ranging from English-based creole languages to Standard English." The inclusion of creoles alongside standard dialects could easily account for the difference in numbers of speakers shown in the two maps. --Khajidha (talk) 02:43, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Getting back to Nyttend's question, that's a fair representation. There's an interesting academic article here [1] on the use of English in Nigeria, which goes into some of the subtleties of the situation. --Xuxl (talk) 15:52, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

What on earth is meant by saying that English is "not official with majority" in Germany? That a majority (more than 50% of the population) can sort of speak some English as a second language? But in France it is less than 50% that are good enough, and so "not official but minority" ?? --Lgriot (talk) 16:37, 14 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

That's my reading of it, yes. Kind of an odd phrasing, but it makes sense. --Viennese Waltz 16:48, 14 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

This map has a lot of issues, as it was once discussed here.--Lüboslóv Yęzýkin (talk) 16:13, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

I think the OP has made some wrong assumptions. The fact that English has been made an official (=bureaucratic) language in Nigeria (or other African country, because the situation is very similar in any of them) says nothing about the actual languages here. The same goes for the "French" and "Portuguese" countries in Africa. Before the colonization of the 19th century the African people there spoke their own tribal languages as well some might speak local lingua francas such as Sango or Kituba. However, the European powers were not going to create nation-states for each tribe, but just artificially drew the borders ignoring any ethnic boundaries. In the future this would create an artificial situation when the local people "needed" a lingua franca. In each colony the language of the master country was established as the language of administration, military and education. Getting education meant you went to a European-style school, learnt a European language, learnt everything in that language, and then most likely made up a career in the European-styled military or in the colonial administration. By the 1950s and 1960s there already arose a small Europeanized African ruling elite. Many spoke good English/French/Portuguese and some finished university in the master country. As for the poor rest they lacked such opportunities and at best spoke broken English/French/Portuguese. However, after the independence the local Europeanized elites were not going to change that established order. First, they were not likely to give up their status. Second, the wholly artificial nature of the borders and the newly independent countries made it very difficult to develop the local languages. You either had to totally redraw all the borders with a very good probability of unstoppable conflicts and wars over the borders, or just to go on. So people needed education. Education meant "European language only". So when laymen went to school, they had to learn everything in European languages. After half a century of this language discrimination, where you either get education in a foreign language or get no education at all, it is expectable that millions of people now know the "official" languages there. Plus the multi-ethnic nature of the states, migration and urbanization have made it impossible to know only your tribal language. Even if people cannot go to school they still may have to learn the language of the state. Though the poor quality of education [2][3] means that often the resulting language learnt is a pidgin variety such as Nigerian Pidgin.

To sum up:

1) People learn their ethnic/tribal language first.

2) Then they go to school and learn the official European language.

3) The poor quality of education usually means the majority speak broken English/French/Portuguese or a pidgin.

4) Those who are rich enough or smart enough and can overcome those obstacles usually get a better education and speak a much better form of English/French/Portuguese. Many continue to university and in the final they make up the local English/French/Portuguese-speaking elite.

5) In this situation it is really impossible to say how many people know the official language and at what level. In theory the wast majority now go to school and learn English/French/Portuguese, but as you may expect the reality is not so bright. The fact remains that all the education from Grade 4 upward, all the things "official", nearly all the press are conducted solely in the official European language.

6) With such an aggressive state enforcement of European languages, the future for the majority of African languages is bleak. However, many are developing. Even if you are unlikely to get a degree in engineering in Yoruba or Hausa, there are still a lot of cultural product in those languages. So there is no reason to consider those countries have the "English-speaking majority" in the way the UK or the US do.--Lüboslóv Yęzýkin (talk) 16:06, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

November 13

Which language is first to speak or use

Which language is considered the first one to be spoken for a person to learn in his or her nation that is multilingual for the following nations: Luxembourg, Belgium, Switzerland and Afghanistan? Donmust90 (talk) 01:03, 13 November 2018 (UTC)Donmust90Donmust90 (talk) 01:03, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Are you seeking a separate answer for each of them, or are you saying "if one person from each country learns the same second language, which language is it most likely to be?" Nyttend (talk) 01:54, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Thinking just of Switzerland, the different languages are regional. If a child is born and raised in a French-speaking region, he or she first learns French, and later learns the other languages of Switzerland. It's not as if all the languages of Switzerland are spoken natively in every part of Switzerland. —Stephen (talk) 05:20, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Languages of Luxembourg, Languages of Belgium, Languages of Afghanistan has data to answer your question, as does Languages of Switzerland to go along with Stephen's post above. In general, you can find information to answer questions you have in this subject area by looking for the Wikipedia article titled "Languages of XXXX" where "XXXX" is the country you have a question about. --Jayron 32 12:10, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

If a child is born and raised in a French-speaking region, he or she first learns French [true] and later learns the other languages of Switzerland [uh ... let's say: starts to learn at least one of them]. It's not as if all the languages of Switzerland are spoken natively in every part of Switzerland [true]. Stephen's main point (I think) -- that it's mistaken to think that each area of Switzerland has two or more native languages -- is valid. The most famously bilingual part of Switzerland may be Biel/Bienne; but I believe that even there, "balanced" bilinguals (people equally competent in both languages) are rare. -- Hoary (talk) 23:12, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

And more: The article Languages of Switzerland does point out that Swiss German is not standard German, but perhaps could be clearer about this. As I understand it, the average adult Swiss speaker of German is already effectively bilingual (their particular variety of Swiss German, plus standard German); in addition to one or more among French, Italian, Romansh, English, Spanish, etc. And in places, the article gives an odd impression: in the trilingual canton of Graubünden, more than half of the population speaks German, while the rest speak Romansh or Italian; this isn't clearly wrong, but I doubt that there are more than a very few speakers of Romansch who don't also have native-level competence in one or other of German and Italian. -- Hoary (talk) 23:31, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

What language is this?

Al-Jamʻīyah al-Saʻūdiyah li-Ṭibb al-Usrah wa-al-Mujtamaʻ and al-Jāmiʻah al-Urdunīyah, ʻImādat al-Baḥth al-ʻIlmī

What language are these, and if we can identify the language, what do they mean? They come from Ulrichsweb (they say that these are the publishers for four and for one periodical, respectively), but unfortunately I don't have any information about the publications themselves, and reverse-searching Ulrichsweb produces no results (probably it doesn't like the ʻ and - characters). It looks like Arabic, but if I copy normal Latin-transliterated Arabic into Google Translate, it gives me what it believes to be the original Arabic and attempts to provide a translation, while it's doing neither for these phrases. So I'm not sure whether there's some mistake in the original phrases, or a mistake by Google, or something else.

A search for mujtama finds results, e.g. "Harakat mujtama' as-silm" is the name of the Movement of Society for Peace, and maybe references to "Jama'at" (e.g. as in Tablighi Jamaat or Jama'at Khana), plus I wondered about some reference to Urdu in the second, but that's probably a false positive because this doesn't look like Urdu.

Thanks for your help. Nyttend (talk) 16:37, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The definite article 'al' and the conjunction 'wa' preceding the words strongly suggests Arabic, but it's probably just a list of names. Since names are not really translatable, that may explain why google doesn't know what to do with it. - Lindert (talk) 16:47, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

They're Arabic names, but under a transcription a little different than may be usual on Wikipedia -- for example ʻ = IPA sound [ʕ] = Arabic letter ع. The spelling "-īy-" is a transcription of the nisbah suffix... AnonMoos (talk) 16:48, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

As limited as my Arabic is, I seem to make sense of these.

Al-Jamʻīyah al-Saʻūdiyah li-Ṭibb al-Usrah wa-al-Mujtamaʻ

الجمعية السعودية لطب الأسرة والمجتمع

"Saudi Association for Family and Community Medicine"

al-Jāmiʻah al-Urdunīyah, ʻImādat al-Baḥth al-ʻIlmī

الجامعة الأردنية، عمادة البحث العلمي

"University of Jordan, Dean's Office for Scientific Research"

These are my attempts for literal translations. The institutions may have different official English names. --Theurgist (talk) 22:54, 13 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks very much! If I take the Arabic text you provided and run it through Google Translate, it transliterates it as well as translating it, and the results are quite similar to the original Latin text I had; between the effects of various Arabic dialects and of a machine translator, it seems that the discrepancies are quite negligible. I'll definitely run with these translations. Nyttend (talk) 02:38, 14 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The first one is the Saudi Society of Family and Community Medicine. The second is the Deanship of Academic Research at the University of Jordan. Adam Bishop (talk) 14:32, 14 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

November 18

Turkmen SSR constitution

Hello guys, I've found a cover of the Constitution of the Turkmen SSR. But it is written in Arabic.

Can someone help me to re type the writings on the cover (in Arab script)? Especially on what's written on the bottom of the underlined word and on the top of the bold word.--Jeromi Mikhael (talk) 07:32, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The white vertical gaps in the large word qanuni are considered quite ugly (very poor typography)...

The third word in the top line is presumably duma, while the first word above qanuni is jamhuriya ("republic"), while the first word below qanuni is a transcription of Russian konstitutsiya "constitution". I'm not sure I can say too much more when I don't know either the Turkmen language or enhanced version of the Arabic alphabet used to write Turkmen... AnonMoos (talk) 14:39, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

It's arabic script, but written in Turkmeni. The word in brackets is "konstitutsiyasi", i.e. "the constitution of". The main title reads "Turkmenistan satsial shura jumhuriyatinak du'ib qanuni", likely meaning "the law setting up the social council of our republic of Turkmenistan", but I'm guessing from the little Arabic, Turkish and Russian words I'm familiar with. I can't make out the underlined part (too many letters that are used solely for Turkmeni). At the bottom, in the final line, the first word is Ashgabat (i.e. the capital), and likely a date, finishing in 1926 yil (the year 1926). Xuxl (talk) 16:12, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The context strongly suggests that the underlined part is a Turkmen translation of Workers of the world, unite! -- although it doesn't match either of the translations cited in our article on Emblem of the Turkmen Soviet Socialist Republic, the third word is definitely dunya for "world". --My another account (talk) 19:50, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Oh, and the middle word in the bottom line is Paltaratski, the name of Ashgabat in 1919--1927 --My another account (talk) 20:47, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The last word in the second bottom line must come from Persian "نشری" - Publication. The third word in that line should be "Committee". --Soman (talk) 21:14, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

And just before that: اجرااییه , which must stem from Persian اجرایی, which is still used for "Executive" in Uzbek today as ijroiya. So perhaps "Executive Committee Publication". --Soman (talk) 21:18, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

And if we look at File:Emblem_of_the_Turkmen_SSR_(1924-1937).svg (which uses Latin letters for Turkmen, even thought it appears in Arabic letters on this cover) the word "Bytin" is used. This is seemingly the second word in the top line? --Soman (talk) 21:31, 18 November 2018 (UTC) "butin" means "entire" in modern Turkmen, so "butin dunia" would be "the entire world". Presumably the first word would be "workers", the last "unite". --Soman (talk) 21:37, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Finally, comparing the image to the cover of the Russian Constitution from 1929, I'm pretty sure that Turkmenstan satsial shura jemhuriyeting duib qanuni (qunstitutsiasi) is Turkmen for "Fundamental law (Constitution) of Turkmen Soviet Socialist Republic". --My another account (talk) 21:45, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The full answer is this:

Arabic script

Original transcription

Modernized transcription

English

برلەشڭز بوتين دونيا يوقسيلارى

توركمەنستان ساتسيال شورا
جەمهورييەتينڭ دۇيب
قانونى
(قونستيتوتسياسى)

توركمەنستان ساتسيال شورا جەمهورييەتى
دويب اجرااييە قوميتەتينڭ نەشرى

آشغابات-پالتاراتسكى 1926-يل

B[i]rleş[i]ň[i]z bütin dünýa ýoksyl[l]ary

Türkmen[i]stan satsial şura
jemhuriýetin[i]ň düýb
QANUNY
(qonstitutsiasy)

Türkmen[i]stan satsial şura jemhuriýeti
düýb ijraiýe qomitetin[i]ň neş[i]ri

Aşğabat-Paltaratsky 1926-yl

Birleşiňiz bütin dünýä ýoksullary

Türkmenistan sosial şura
jemhuriýetiniň düýp
KANUNY
(konstitusiýasy)

Türkmenistan sosial şura jemhuriýetiniň
düýp ijraiýe komitetiniň neşiri
Aşgabat-Poltoratsky 1926-ýyl

Workers of the world, unite!

Turkmen Socialist Soviet
Republic's basic
LAW
(Constitution)

Turkmen Socialist Soviet Republic's
central executive committee's edition
Ashgabat-Poltoratsk, year 1926

Note that some Arabic words are obsolete in modern Turkmen and the spelling was different.--Lüboslóv Yęzýkin (talk) 23:27, 18 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

November 19

Need a Translation from English to Ket

If any one has access to a Ket dictionary or lexicon, please translate the following English text into Ket.

Before her eyes seen,

A moment immortalized in a single stroke.

The little death - unavoidable, inescapable.

The spiral; a death inconceivable,

To the joy of Jalika,

Triumph; a leap into the darkness.

Upon the moisture of morning dew,

Jalika slept well.

déhanchements (talk) 02:31, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Is it a prank or trolling? I hope you must know that there are only a couple of hundreds of speakers of the language, most likely neither of them speak good English, and even less likely they read this page. Plus the grammar is rather difficult, even if the language have an isolating grammar, it is not like you take a dictionary and translate word by word (try to do this with Chinese).--Lüboslóv Yęzýkin (talk) 15:15, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Dictionary and grammar then... déhanchements (talk) 19:40, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

So you expect somebody here to find a dictionary and grammar, learn the language and make your translation. Very funny. Why don't you do this yourself? Really, your only hope is to write directly to one of the linguists who study the language and who are mentioned in the article about the language. A small chance still exists some of them will answer to your weird request. Why Ket? Why your text? What is the point of all this? --Lüboslóv Yęzýkin (talk) 20:47, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

What does dubitantibus mean? Presumably Legal Latin

Our article Harry Willcock includes the word "dubantibus" in the report of his appeal. This appears to be its only occurrence on Wikipedia. What does it mean, please? DuncanHill (talk) 14:57, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Looks like an erroneous form of wikt:dubitantibus.--Lüboslóv Yęzýkin (talk) 15:05, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

(ec) I think it should be dubitantibus which is the Latin plural of dubitante, see [4]. shoy (reactions) 15:07, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Why is the word "Internet" capitalized?

Re: the Internet. Why does this word have a capital letter "I"? Thanks. Joseph A. Spadaro (talk) 19:03, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

It is widely seen as a proper noun. Please read Capitalization of "Internet". Cullen³²⁸ Let's discuss it 19:13, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The word "their"

Is it proper or improper to use the word "their" when referring to a singular noun? I was always taught that it was wrong. But, nowadays, it seems to be more "accepted". An example sentence: This test will assess a student's mathematical aptitude, and will determine their class placement. Is the word "their" used properly in that case or no? I see things like this all the time. Thanks. Joseph A. Spadaro (talk) 19:06, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Please read Singular they. Cullen³²⁸ Let's discuss it 19:10, 19 November 2018 (UTC)[reply]